I'm now wondering if the process of establishing share owners on the 24th has the potential to "bell the cat" on naked short selling.
If Tesla has any official communication with "owners of record", or if "owners of record" have any way of checking the record, that potential exists.
To avoid errors and ensure a tidy process, some way of confirming the record is true and correct would not be a surprise.
Now consider 2 scenarios:-
1) Owner A has a share which is loaned to a short seller and sold to owner B. IMO owner B is the "owner of record"
2) Owner C buys a share which is a naked short and subject to fail to deliver - there is no "owner of record" but owner C thinks they are an "owner of record".
This all hinges on some ability for owner C to check the record on the 24th.
If this scenario exists, MM want to unwind all naked sorts before the 24th, or embarrassing questions might be asked, and lawsuits may even follow.
The cost common use of Naked Shorts by MM would be to manipulate the market on options expiry normally the would want to unwind that position in the next few days to reload before the next options expiry. But if the Tesla share price remains high, MM being stuck with more Naked Shorts on the books than they would ideally like, is possible.
All along I've had hunch Dodger is right, and the market action seems to be confirming it, if my assumption about owner C being able to check the record is correct, this is a plausible explanation..
I'm leaning more and more towards @Artful Dodger being wrong. Not about the practice of naked shorting, but about them getting screwed over by the split.
First of all, I think it's more useful to think of large entities like brokers who don't own the shares themselves, but have clients whom own the shares.
In your first scenario, the broker of owner A knows that owner A does not own any real shares, and will not report these shares for the purpose of getting a 4 share dividend. The debt, whether it be to a different client of the broker or to a client at another broker, will simply be updated from 1 share @ $1,500 to 5 shares @ $300. Nothing will change for regular shorts.
In your second scenario, I believe that this scenario can only be in play for a limited amount of time, because the sale of a share has to eventually be delivered by the seller, regardless of whether the seller is a long, short, or naked short. If it's not delivered within 3 days, it leads to a FTD (Failed to Deliver). This FTD then has to be resolved by the 4th day in case of a short sale, or if the seller can demonstrate that it's a long sale and has the share(s) on its balance sheet, by the 6th day. This is clearly explained in the SEC's Regulation SHO.
Rule 204 – Close-out Requirement. Rule 204 requires brokers and dealers that are participants of a registered clearing agency[8] to take action to close out failure to deliver positions. Closing out requires the broker or dealer to purchase or borrow securities of like kind and quantity. The participant must close out a failure to deliver for a short sale transaction by no later than the beginning of regular trading hours on the settlement day following the settlement date, referred to as T+4. If a participant has a failure to deliver that the participant can demonstrate on its books and records resulted from a long sale, or that is attributable to bona fide market making activities, the participant must close out the failure to deliver by no later than the beginning of regular trading hours on the third consecutive settlement day following the settlement date, referred to as T+6.
I think what @Artful Dodger might be suggesting is going on is something like this:
Participants
- MM A (Market Maker A)
- MM B
- Broker
- MM A sells short 100 shares of TSLA to the Broker without first borrowing the shares, this is a naked short.
- MM A has to deliver these 100 shares to the broker within 3 days, to do so it will ask MM B to naked short 100 shares to him, which MM A can deliver to the broker.
- MM B and MM A somehow don't have to play by the rules, and even after the trade fails to deliver after 3 days, @Artful Dodger keeps mentioning that market makers have 13 days until they have to report a FTD.
- On day 12, MM A naked shorts 100 shares back to MM B, so that MM B doesn't have to report those 100 shares that failed to deliver.
- Then on day 12 of that short, MM B once again naked shorts 100 shares back to MM A, so that MM A doesn't have to report its FTD. This then goes on and on.
- I'm skeptical that step #2 works. I'm doubtful that 100 shares that weren't yet delivered to MM A by MM B could be delivered to the broker.
- I have been unable to find anything on Google about this 13 day FTD reporting requirement, and how market makers don't have to deliver on their trades to each other within 4 days in case of a short sale.
But it's grammar-school easy to imagine a scheme where two market makers collude to evade the 13-day FTD reporting requirements:
- Broker 'A' sells naked shorts on Day 1
- by Day 12, Broker 'A' has still not located shares
- instead of covering, Broker 'A' buys more shorts from Broker 'B'
- after a while Brokers 'A' and 'B' are routinely swapping naked shorts
- the 13 day reporting clock is reset indefinitely, thus the rule is nullified
This explanation seems overly simplistic to me. There has to be a buyer of the naked shorts, and I don't see how they could circumvent the rule that a short, be it naked or not, not delivered upon within 3 days will result in a FTD, and will then have to be delivered by the next day (4th day after trade took place). Unless the buyer is 'in on it', I can't imagine many buyers being okay with the FTD extending for 12 days to 15 days (3 weeks) after the original sale took place.
So, how does a 'Stock Dividend' break up such a scam? Although any MM who has a large, unreported backlog of synthetic shares created to support their own proprietary trading (with the express goal of depressing the SP), they CAN NOT use their market maker's exemption to create new shares (they only have the right to borrow shares 'in the blind' with the understanding that they will eventually locate them).
This will not be the case after a 5:1 split. With 12 million shares sold short (as of July 31st), after the split their will be a need to identify 48 million new shares to attach to the existing shorts. This is an accounting problem of enormous magnitude for Broker's that have outstanding FTDs on their books.
These 2 paragraphs seem to contradict each other to me. If market makers cannot use their exemption to create new shares (which I agree with), then they can never deliver a share to a buyer in the first place. It'll always be an "I owe you this share", which will turn into an "I owe you 5 shares" after the split. So rather than having to locate 1 share @ $1,500, the naked short will have to locate 5 shares @ $300.
Bottom line is that these are the only types of positions:
- A long that owns real shares
- A long that is owed shares by a short
- A short that owes shares to a long
- A long that is waiting for his transaction to settle and is owed a share by a long/short/naked short. There's a contract to execute this trade for a set price, but the share still has to be delivered.
- A long/short that has to settle a transaction. A long owns a share, a short has borrowed a share, either way they have to deliver this share to the buyer.
- A naked short that has to settle a transaction. He hasn't located the share yet, but he has to within 3 or an FTD will trigger, giving him 1 additional day to deliver on the transaction.
#2, #3, #4, and #6 are simply debts that will change from 1 share @ $1,500 to 5 shares @ $300.
If I am missing something, and naked shorts are able to fraud their way around some of this, I'd love a detailed explanation of exactly how they are able to. As is, I don't see how naked shorts are screwed over by the 5-to-1 dividend split.